When brethren are confused about whether Christ came to fulfill the law and prophets or to perpetuate them, it is time to get back to basics! Some are teaching that "Continuity of law is evident in Matthew 5:17," and Jesus did not "dismantle the law and give a new one," He only "took away the ceremonial aspects of the law." My affirmation is that Jesus fulfilled the promises, the prophecies and the law, and all of it passed away. We can please God only by following the New Covenant revealed through Christ and ratified by his blood.

"Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one title will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven" (Matt. 5:17-19).

Most of the material in this article is taken from a book written by James D. Bales in 1973, entitled: "Christ: The Fulfillment of The Law And The Prophets." (It is out of print now. All quotations will be from this source.) When Jesus said he came "to fulfill the Law," was he talking about the "moral law," the "ceremonial law," or all the Law? Those who contend that he came just to fulfill the "ceremonial law" have a problem with the context, for the next verses talk about murder, anger, lust, adultery, divorce, telling the truth, resisting evil, and loving your enemies (Matt. 5:21-48). Jesus also said that he came to "fulfill the Prophets." Was he referring to some of the prophets, or all of them?

John said, "For the law was given through Moses" (John 1:17), and Paul said that the law given "four hundred and thirty years" after the promise was intended to last "till the seed should come" (Gal. 3:17, 19). Did God mean to say that "the ceremonial law was given till the seed should come"? Whatever Jesus affirmed about the Law, he also affirmed about the prophets in Matthew 5. If he meant that he would perpetuate the Law, it must also mean that he would perpetuate the prophets. Whatever "fulfillment" did for one it did for the other! (Jesus used the expression "law and prophets" to include the whole Old Testament system (Matt. 7:12; 22:40). The Hebrew writer said God "spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets" but "has in these last days spoken to us by His Son" (Deb. 1:1, 2). We are not to "hear" Moses or the prophets, but the Son of God!

What is the difference between destroying and fulfilling? God told Moses he would "raise up for them a Prophet like you" (Deut. 18:18). When Jesus came, did he destroy that prophecy or fulfill it (Acts 3:22, 23)? Zechariah said that Jesus would rule both as a priest and a king on his throne (Zech. 6:13). When Jesus came, did he fulfill that prophecy, or destroy it? When the prophecies were fulfilled, what happened to them? "When one says that we are no longer under the law and the prophets, he is not saying that Jesus destroyed them by perpetuating them, but rather that he brought them to an end by fulfilling them" (20). "Christ did not come to annul the purpose of the law and the prophets. He did not bring them to naught by failing to fulfill them. He did not abolish them in the sense that one abolishes a promise by refusing to fulfill it. But he did bring the law and the prophets to an end by fulfilling them.... If Christ perpetuated one part of the law, he perpetuated all of the law, since none was to pass until all was fulfilled" (23, 24).

But, what about the prohibition against "breaking one of the least commandments" (Matt. 5:19)? First, would one of "the least" be moral or ceremonial? Jesus had just said that "one jot or one title will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled" (v. 18). Second, was Jesus saying that even the least commandments would continue after the law was fulfilled? No, he was saying that those who have the disposition, under either law, to ignore "the least commandments" do not have the right attitude toward God's word. Paul said, "But now the righteousness of God apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets" (Rom. 3:21). Just as surely as righteousness is through faith in Christ, the law and the prophets accomplished theft purpose, and though they have historical value, they "passed away."

It is certainly true that some of God's laws deal with moral conduct and others with ceremonial actions, but does the Bible teach that the ceremonial law passed away but the moral law remained? Look at a few verses in Romans and ask, "Which law is under discussion?" "For the Gen-tiles, who do not have the law .... (2:14). Is this moral or ceremonial law? The Jews "rested in the law" and had the advantage over Gentiles "because to them were committed the oracles of God" (2:17; 3:1, 2). Was it only the ceremonial law that gave the Jews advantage? Those who had received the law became "dead to the law through the body of Christ" (7:4). Now, "we have been delivered from the law, having died to what we were held by ..." (v. 6). Again, was this just the ceremonial law which had held them and to which they died? If so, why did Paul say, "I would have not known sin except through the law. For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, You shall not covet" (v. 7). His illustration of law is one of the Ten Commandments (Exod. 20:17)!

Let's take a brief look at the book of Galatians. "Man is not justified by the works of the law . . . for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified" (2:16). Which law does Paul mean? Was flesh justified by the moral law but not by the ceremonial? "Did you receive the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?" (3:2). Did they receive the Spirit by the moral law, but not the ceremonial? "For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse . . . But that no one is justified by the law in the sight of God is evident, for the just shall live by faith" (vv. 10, 11). Again, did the Galatians live by the moral law given through Moses? "For if the inheritance is of the law, it is no longer of promise" (v.18). Was the inheritance by the moral, but not the ceremonial law? "What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator" (v. 19). Was it just the ceremonial law that was given through angels by the hand of a mediator? "Before faith came, we were kept under guard by the law" (v. 23). Again, which law? (Romans 7:6, 7 identifies the law under which they had been "held" as the one that forbad coveting!) "There-fore the law was our tutor to bring us to Christ . . . but after faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor" (vv. 23-25). Unless the law is "the faith which would afterward be revealed," we are not under it!

Notice one passage in Hebrews. "Anyone who rejected Moses' law dies without mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses" (Heb. 10:28). Does Moses' law include the moral law? (See Num. 35:30; Deut. 17:1-6.) The writer, in this context, contrasts Moses' law with trampling "the Son of God underfoot," and counting "the blood of the covenant" by which we are sanctified a common thing (Heb. 10:29). No, we are not under the law of Moses, either the moral or ceremonial part, but under the covenant that was dedicated by the blood of Jesus Christ (Heb. 9:16-18). (Take your concordance and read every use of "law" in Romans, Galatians, and Hebrews and ask the question — Is it moral or ceremonial? This will show the folly of the "one covenant" theorists who claim that them are "two laws" [moral and ceremonial]).

James Bales concluded: "Where is the moral law found revealed in its fullness? It is found in Christ, in the New Covenant. We do not have the authority to go to the Old Testament, select something which we would like to be an eternal principle (which he calls moral law), and bind it on God's people today. We cannot know that it is an eternal principle unless it is also found in the New Testament" (69). This harmonizes with the Hebrew writer's contrast between the things "spoken through angels" (cp. Gal. 3:19) and the things that "fast began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed to us by those who heard him" (Heb. 2:2, 3).

Those who deny that the whole law passed away have the impossible task of determining which of the Old Testament laws to bring over. Is the prohibition against eating blood (Lev. 17:10, 11), moral or ceremonial? (Some who believe the moral laws of Moses are binding are teaching that prohibition against eating blood was removed, so it must be "ceremonial"!) Is giving your wife a certificate of divorce and sending her away (Deut. 24:1-4), moral or ceremonial? (Some advocates of an unchanging moral law contend that this is still God's law; others say it is not so!) God gave David his "master's wives" (2 Sam. 12:8). Is polygamy moral or ceremonial? (One advocate of this theory says he does not know.) What about concubines (2 Sam. 5:13)? What about a brother taking his deceased brother's wife (Deut. 25:5)? Is this part of the moral or the ceremonial law? Was it moral for Ezra to tell God's people to put away their wives that they did not have a right to marry (Ezra 10:3, 4), or is this part of the ceremonial law that has been taken away? Must we examine every law in the Old Testament and agree on whether it is moral or ceremonial before we know what we should do under the law of Christ? Such is unscriptural and impossible!

The blood of Christ did not ratify the promise to Abraham. It was in effect for two thousand years before it was fulfilled. The blood of Christ did not ratify the First Covenant. It was ratified by the blood of animals (Exod. 24:7, 8; Heb. 9:19), was fulfilled and passed away. Every time we observe the Lord's supper, we are reminded, "this cup is the new covenant in My blood" (1 Cor. 11:25). "The fact that there are similar principles in both Covenants, does not mean that we obey these because they are in the law of Moses ... Moses was inspired of God to reveal the Old Covenant to Israel, but God speaks to us today through his Son (Heb. 1:1, 2). We obey these principles not because they are in the law of Moses, but because God has placed them in the NEW Covenant" (74). Amen!

Guardian of Truth XLI: 16 p. 6-8
August 21, 1997